The PMP exam contains a variety of question types that test your knowledge in different ways. Here are some of the main question types you may encounter:

– Situational questions – These present a hypothetical project scenario and ask you to identify the best response or course of action. They test your ability to apply PMP concepts.

– Definition questions – These ask you to define key terms or concepts from the PMBOK Guide. They test your knowledge recall.

– Calculation questions – These require you to perform numerical calculations such as estimating costs, determining float, finding variances, etc. Bring a calculator!

– Process order questions – These ask you to put project management processes in their proper sequence. Know the process flow and inputs/outputs.

– Graphic interpretation questions – These present charts, diagrams, or tables and ask you to interpret the information.

– “All of the following except” questions – These list 4 response options where 3 are correct and 1 is incorrect. The question stem will indicate “Which is NOT correct”.

– “Which is BEST” questions – These give a scenario and list possible responses. You must choose the most optimal response, not just the correct one.

– Matching questions – These provide columns of items that must be paired together correctly, such as process to tool/technique.

Some key facts about the PMP exam :

You have 4 hours to complete the exam, equal to 1 minute and 15 seconds per question. This includes time for the tutorial and survey at the beginning.
The majority (around 80%) of the questions are situational-based. These present a scenario and ask you to apply PMP principles.
Questions are from across all project management process groups – Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and controlling, Closing.
Questions test your knowledge of all areas of the PMBOK Guide.
You cannot skip questions or return to previous questions once answered.

Let’s see the Top 70+ PMP Exam Questions and Answers with Explanation

Q1. A project manager is informed that a key stakeholder is dissatisfied with the project outcomes. What should the project manager do first?

A. Meet with the key stakeholder to better understand their concerns

B. Update the lessons learned documentation with the new information

C. Present the concerns at the next team meeting to get feedback

D. Revise the project management plan to address the concerns

Answer: A

Explanation: The first thing a project manager should do when learning of a dissatisfied stakeholder is to meet with that stakeholder directly to gain a deeper understanding of their concerns. Then appropriate actions can be taken to address the concerns.

Q2. During project execution, a team member reports that a key activity will take longer than originally estimated. What should the project manager do first?

A. Ask the team member to complete the activity as quickly as possible

B. Determine the impact on project schedule and cost estimates

C. Report the issue to the project sponsor

D. Update the risk register with this new risk

Answer: B

Explanation: Whenever an activity is going to take longer than expected, the PM should first assess the impact on the overall project schedule and cost estimates. Understanding the implications allows the PM to determine the best course of action.

Q3. A project manager is preparing the final project presentation for stakeholders. Where should they document lessons learned from the project?

A. Issue log

B. Project management plan

C. Project documents updates

D. Organizational process assets

Answer: D

Explanation: Lessons learned should be documented in the organizational process assets. These archives allow future project managers to benefit from the experience gained on past projects.

Q4. Which of the following tools would a project manager use to evaluate the completeness of the project scope statement?

A. Context diagram

B. Stakeholder register

C. Requirements traceability matrix

D. Work breakdown structure

Answer: C

Explanation: The requirements traceability matrix tracks requirements through every stage of the project to ensure they are delivered as expected. This helps assess the completeness of the scope statement.

Q5. A project manager is reviewing the work breakdown structure (WBS) created by the team. What should they verify?

A. All scheduled work is tied to milestones

B. There is at least one work package for each activity

C. No single work package exceeds 80 hours of effort

D. Work package estimates are based on 3-point estimates

Answer: B

Explanation: Each work package in the WBS should have at least one associated activity from the activity list. This ensures all elements of the project work are accounted for.

Q6. A project manager is planning a project focused on developing a new software feature for an existing program. This feature was not included in the original project charter. What should the project manager do before work begins?

A. Issue a change request

B. Update the scope management plan

C. Submit a revised business case

D. Obtain approval for the scope change

Answer: D

Explanation: Changes in scope, even on agile projects, should be approved through the proper change control process before work begins. This ensures stakeholders are in agreement.

Q7. A project manager establishes the sequence of project activities using which of the following tools?

A. Critical path analysis

B. Resource leveling

C. Critical chain method

D. Precedence diagramming

Answer: D

Explanation: A precedence diagram shows the logical sequence of activities and dependencies between activities to create the project schedule.

Q8. A project manager is developing a schedule for a software development project. The project management plan requires each scheduled activity to be less than 2 days. Which technique should the project manager use to meet this requirement?

A. Resource leveling
B. Critical chain method
C. Critical path analysis
D. Fast tracking

Answer: B

Explanation: The critical chain method requires breaking down activity durations to be less than 5-15 days. This helps improve schedule predictability.

Q9. A project is expected to take 12 weeks to complete. However, the sponsor requests that the project finish 2 weeks earlier. What technique could help the project manager compress the schedule?

A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Resource smoothing
D. Critical path analysis

Answer: A

Explanation: Crashing involves adding resources or working overtime on critical path activities to shorten their duration and complete the project faster.

Q10. A project manager needs to fund key activities early in the project schedule. Which cost management tool could they use?

A. Reserve analysis
B. Sunk costs
C. Parametric estimating
D. Cash flow forecasting

Answer: D

Explanation: Cash flow forecasting predicts periodic project funding needs and allows the PM to plan for sufficient funds availability as activities are executed.

Q11. A project manager discovers that project costs are running higher than planned, causing a budget deficit. Which approach could help reduce costs?

A. Allocate reserve funds
B. Submit a change request
C. Update cost estimates
D. Implement value engineering

Answer: D

Explanation: Value engineering looks for ways to remove unnecessary costs while maintaining essential functions and quality. This helps improve cost efficiency.

Q12. Which cost estimation method uses quantifiable data and mathematical models to predict total project costs?

A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Analogous estimating
C. Three-point estimating
D. Parametric estimating

Answer: D

Explanation: Parametric estimating uses established cost-per-unit metrics to estimate total costs based on project parameters and historical data.

Q13. During project execution, a project manager tracks defects and fixes to prevent reoccurrence. What tool are they using?

A. Control charts
B. Design of experiments
C. Statistical sampling
D. Quality audits

Answer: A

Explanation: A control chart plots data over time to identify trends and variations from expected results, signaling potential problems needing corrective action.

Q14. A project manager is overseeing software development and wants to use a structured test approach. What technique should they implement?

A. Reviews
B. Inspection
C. Pilot testing
D. Walkthroughs

Answer: B

Explanation: Inspections follow a defined process for identifying defects in work products, and are commonly used in software development.

Q15. A key project deliverable did not meet the quality standards established in the quality management plan. What should the project manager have done differently?

A. Implemented more quality audits during execution
B. Performed quality control more frequently
C. Allocated more time for quality assurance planning
D. Enforced stricter performance metrics

Answer: B

Explanation: Quality control during execution could have identified deficiencies earlier so corrections could be made before final acceptance.

Q16. A project manager is forming the project team. What should be the PM’s FIRST consideration?

A. Level of technical expertise required
B. Experience working on similar projects
C. Ability to work together as a team
D. Availability and cost rates of team members

Answer: A

Explanation: The required knowledge, skills, and abilities for project execution should drive team formation. Other factors are secondary.

Q17. Partway through a project, a key team member becomes unavailable. The project manager decides to bring in a contractor to fill the role temporarily. What type of resource is this?

A. Consumable material
B. Capital equipment
C. Direct cost
D. Shared resource

Answer: C

Explanation: A direct cost resource is one directly involved in project execution, such as a team member brought onto the core team.

Q18. A project manager realizes there is insufficient staff to complete all project work in the allotted timeframes. Which approach could help resolve this issue?

A. Resource smoothing
B. Resource leveling
C. Resource allocation
D. Resource utilization

Answer: B

Explanation: Resource leveling adjusts assignments across activities to avoid overloading resources. This helps balance the workload.

Q19. During project planning, a project manager employs a matrix ranking each stakeholder based on their power, interest, and influence over the project. What tool are they using?

A. Stakeholder register
B. Stakeholder analysis matrix
C. Communication matrix
D. RACI chart

Answer: B

Explanation: A stakeholder analysis matrix ranks and maps stakeholders on various attributes to prioritize engagement.

Q20. What is the BEST way for a project manager to gain support from resistant stakeholders?

A. Modify the project charter to meet their needs
B. Share selected information and gather feedback
C. Arrange a meeting with senior leadership
D. Add them to the communication plan

Answer: B

Explanation: Sharing specific project information tailored to the resistant stakeholder and gathering their feedback can help gain their support.

Q21. A project sponsor asks the project manager for a status update. The project is behind schedule and over budget. What should the PM communicate?

A. Assure the sponsor they will bring the project back on track
B. Provide unfiltered facts and the PM’s assessment
C. Explain they are waiting on team members to finish their tasks
D. Promise to work overtime until the project is back on track

Answer: B

Explanation: The PM should give sponsors objective data along with insightful analysis, even if negative. The sponsor needs complete visibility.

Q22. A construction project manager plans to subcontract some project work. What document defines the subcontracted work to be performed?

A. Statement of work
B. Contract management plan
C. Resource management plan
D. Change control plan

Answer: A

Explanation: The statement of work describes the procured work to be performed by contractors or suppliers.

Q23. A project manager is preparing to contract an external company to perform testing services. Which contract pricing structure is MOST suitable for this type of service?

A. Fixed-price
B. Time and materials
C. Cost reimbursable
D. Purchase order

Answer: B

Explanation: Time and materials contracts pay for contracted resources at predetermined hourly rates, appropriate for services like testing.

Q24. A vendor failed to deliver project work according to the terms in the procurement agreement. What should the project manager do FIRST?

A. Terminate the contract
B. Initiate legal action
C. Issue a cure notice giving time to correct
D. Procure a new vendor

Answer: C

Explanation: A cure notice gives the vendor time and opportunity to resolve the issue before pursuing contract termination.

Q25. A project manager is developing a risk management plan. Which of the following is a tool or technique used for qualitative risk analysis?

A. Probability and impact matrix
B. Statistical modeling
C. Interviews
D. Reserve analysis

Answer: C

Explanation: Conducting interviews with project stakeholders is a useful technique for identifying risks that may not be captured otherwise.

Q26. A project faces a risk that could substantially delay project completion. What should the project manager do FIRST in response?

A. Create a contingency reserve
B. Implement the risk response plan
C. Update the risk register
D. Perform quantitative risk analysis

Answer: B

Explanation: The risk response plan outlines agreed-upon responses to identified risks. It should be implemented when a risk materializes to minimize impact.

Q27. Which risk response strategy involves adjusting project management plans to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk?

A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. Exploit

Answer: A

Explanation: Risk mitigation seeks to reduce risk impact or likelihood through targeted strategies and actions.

Q28. A project sponsor requested an update on project’s progress. However, the report presented contains highly technical details. What should the project manager have done differently?

A. Summarized the report data in a dashboard
B. Asked team members to explain the report
C. Tailored the report to the sponsor’s needs
D. Scheduled a follow-up call to discuss details

Answer: C

Explanation: Project communications should be tailored to stakeholder needs and preferences. The PM should present relevant info without unnecessary details.

Q29. A project manager must communicate a sensitive issue to a stakeholder. Which communication method would be BEST in this situation?

A. Email
B. Phone call
C. Video conference
D. In-person meeting

Answer: D

Explanation: Difficult conversations are best done in person. This allows greater opportunity to communicate details, answer questions, and observe reactions.

Q30. At the start of a project, the project manager develops a communication matrix listing all project stakeholders, communication channels, frequency and more. What document are they creating?

A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. RACI chart
C. Stakeholder register
D. Communications management plan

Answer: D

Explanation: The communications management plan defines project communication needs and strategies. It includes the communication matrix.

Q31. A project is approved and launched. The project manager begins planning all aspects of project execution according to the project charter. What process is the project manager engaged in?

A. Develop Project Charter
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Monitor and Control Project Work

Answer: B

Explanation: The Develop Project Management Plan process establishes how the project will be planned, executed, monitored, controlled and closed. It creates the overall project roadmap.

Q32. A new project manager is assigned to take over an existing project mid-execution. What document should the new PM review FIRST?

A. Lessons learned
B. Issue log
C. Project management plan
D. Risk register

Answer: C

Explanation: The project management plan contains all information on how the project was intended to be executed. The new PM should review it first for context.

Q33. The project sponsor requests adding new features during project execution that were not included in the original project scope. What should the project manager do FIRST?

A. Inform the team to begin work on the new features
B. Add the new features to the scope management plan
C. Analyze the feasibility and impact of including the new features
D. Update the WBS with the additional work

Answer: C

Explanation: A change request to modify the scope must be analyzed for impacts before approval. The PM does not have the authority to expand the scope unilaterally.

Q34. A project manager discovers that a team member falsifies test results to hide defects in a project deliverable. What is the BEST course of action for the PM?

A. Terminate the team member immediately
B. Discuss the situation only with upper management
C. Have a private conversation with the team member
D. Notify stakeholders of the faulty test results

Answer: C

Explanation: The PMI Code of Ethics requires discussing ethical issues directly with the individual first before taking other actions.

Q35. A project forecast shows a cost overrun, although the schedule predicts on-time completion. The sponsor insists the PM present on-schedule, on-budget forecasts to stakeholders. What should the PM do?

A. Present the false forecasts as requested
B. Refuse and share realistic forecasts
C. Update forecasts to match sponsor expectations
D. Threaten to escalate the issue to senior management

Answer: B

Explanation: The PMI Code of Ethics forbids knowingly reporting false or inaccurate information. The PM must provide truthful forecasts.

Q36. A project manager’s friend works for a company bidding on a procurement contract for the PM’s project. The PM is asked to recommend who should receive the contract. What is the BEST course of action?

A. Recommend the friend’s company to leverage the relationship
B. Document the relationship and withdraw from decision-making
C. Decline to make any recommendation due to the conflict of interest
D. Award the contract to the lowest bidder regardless of relationship

Answer: C

Explanation: The PM should disclose the relationship and recuse themselves from decisions to avoid any appearance of impropriety.

Q37. During project planning, a project manager develops a scope management plan and requirements documentation. What process are they engaged in?

A. Define Scope
B. Create WBS
C. Validate Scope
D. Control Scope

Answer: A

Explanation: The Define Scope process determines and documents project goals, deliverables, assumptions and constraints. It creates the scope baseline.

Q38. The project sponsor requests adding functionality that was specifically excluded from scope based on low business value. What should the project manager explain is needed to add this functionality?

A. Update the requirements traceability matrix
B. Complete change control and get approval
C. Revise the scope management plan
D. Issue a change request to close out the feature

Answer: B

Explanation: Adding excluded functionality requires formally submitting a change request and going through change control for approval.

Q39. During user acceptance testing, key requirements are found to be missing from the deliverable. What should have been the project manager’s FIRST line of defense against this?

A. Scope verification
B. Scope validation
C. Quality control
D. Change control

Answer: A

Explanation: Scope verification progressively validates work is performed according to requirements. It prevents late discovery of gaps.

Q40. A project is running behind schedule. By crash costing the critical path, the project manager calculates the budget required to meet the original deadline. What schedule compression technique is being used?

A. Resource leveling
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical path analysis
D. Crashing

Answer: D

Explanation: Crashing determines the reduction in duration possible through adding resources on the critical path.

Q41. While monitoring the project schedule, the project manager sees that the critical path has 25 days of float available. What does this suggest?

A. The next activity is estimated at 25 days
B. The project can be completed 25 days later
C. The critical path can be delayed without impacting the end date
D. The critical path has 25 days of risky activities

Answer: C

Explanation: Float on the critical path means it can be delayed without delaying project completion.

Q42. The project management office (PMO) requires all project schedules have a risk threshold = top 3 longest paths, and cut-off = near-critical ratio = 1.1. What do these parameters control?

A. Risk analysis methods
B. Schedule network analysis
C. Schedule compression techniques
D. Critical path identification

Answer: D

Explanation: These parameters define criteria for determining the critical path(s) when analyzing the schedule network.

Q43. A project manager is estimating project costs. Stakeholders request using the most conservative estimates to minimize risk of cost overruns. What estimation approach meets this need?

A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Parametric estimating
C. Three-point estimating
D. PERT estimating

Answer: D

Explanation: PERT uses three estimates – most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic – to calculate a weighted average that emphasizes the extremes.

Q44. A project has the following time and cost estimates:
Most likely: 4 months, $80,000
Optimistic: 3 months, $60,000
Pessimistic: 5 months, $120,000

What is the expected project cost?

A. $65,000
B. $80,000
C. $90,000
D. $100,000

Answer: C

Explanation: Expected cost = (optimistic + 4 x most likely + pessimistic) / 6

Q45. A project has a budget at completion of $250,000. The project manager has spent $75,000 to date. However, the estimate at completion is $325,000. What is the cost variance?

A. -$100,000
B. -$75,000
C. +$75,000
D. +$100,000

Answer: A

Explanation: Cost variance = EAC – BAC.
Here, EAC is $325,000 while BAC is $250,000, so the variance is -$100,000 (unfavorable).

Q46. A project team is designing a new building. The project manager wants to ensure the electrical wiring will meet safety codes and standards. What quality technique should be used?

A. Benchmarking
B. Design of experiments
C. Statistical sampling
D. Quality audits

Answer: A

Explanation: Benchmarking compares product designs to industry best practices and standards to ensure quality.

Q47. A project has several complex processes that must operate efficiently to meet product specifications. What tool should the project manager use to identify the inputs and outputs of these processes?

A. Process decision program chart
B. Statistical sampling
C. Flowchart
D. Check sheet

Answer: C

Explanation: A flowchart diagrams the steps of a process, showing inputs, outputs, decision points etc. Useful for analyzing process efficiency.

Q48. A project has fallen behind schedule leading to significant quality issues. What root cause is most likely?

A. Inadequate quality audits
B. Insufficient testing
C. Lack of process controls
D. Poor workmanship

Answer: D

Explanation: Poor workmanship generating rework is a common root cause of quality issues and schedule delays.

Q49. A project manager must staff a team of database developers for an upcoming project expected to last 18 months. There are no internal resources available. What contract type would be MOST suitable?

A. Fixed-price
B. Purchase order
C. Statement of work
D. Retainer

Answer: D

Explanation: A retainer contract secures resources for the duration of the project, appropriate for long-term staff augmentation needs.

Q50. The project budget allows for hiring two web developers. However, the schedule requires four developers to finish on time. What should the project manager do?

A. Fast track to reduce duration
B. Crash the schedule
C. Increase budget for more staff
D. Report unrealistic timeline

Answer: D

Explanation: The PM cannot arbitrarily change the budget or schedule. They should report the mismatch between budget/schedule as a project constraint.

Q51. A project manager learns that a team member booked on the project full-time is also assigned to another project. What should the PM do FIRST?

A. Request more resources
B. Talk to the resource’s manager
C. Reduce the resource’s project work
D. Update the resource management plan

Answer: B

Explanation: The PM should discuss resource overallocation directly with the functional manager to negotiate availability.

Q52. During stakeholder analysis, a project manager categorized a stakeholder with high influence but low interest as…

A. Champion
B. Observer
C. Critic
D. Resister

Answer: C

Explanation: Critics have high influence in the project but low interest. Keeping them satisfied helps reduce opposition.

Q53. A project sponsor has made unrealistic demands about the project scope, cost and schedule. What strategy could the project manager use to manage the sponsor’s expectations?

A. Refuse to acknowledge the sponsor’s requests
B. Ask for the demands in writing for later reference
C. Offer to provide data on the feasibility of requests
D. Involve senior management to explain impact

Answer: C

Explanation: Offering data and evidence can help manage sponsor expectations without damaging the relationship.

Q54. Stakeholders started raising many complaints about poor communication during a project. What should the project manager have done proactively?

A. Documented issues in the risk register
B. Developed the communications management plan
C. Updated the requirements traceability matrix
D. Created a change request form

Answer: B

Explanation: The communications management plan outlines how communications will be managed. Doing this upfront prevents later issues.

Q55. A major project deliverable failed quality testing. The project manager decides to rework it completely rather than try to fix it incrementally. What process is the project manager engaged in?

A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Defect repair
D. Quality control

Answer: A

Explanation: Corrective action involves taking steps to address root causes and bring expected future performance in line with requirements.

Q56. A project is nearing completion. The project manager creates a final performance report and project presentation and obtains final acceptance from the sponsor. What closing process is this?

A. Close project
B. Close procurements
C. Control resources
D. Transfer team members

Answer: A

Explanation: The Close Project process finalizes all project activities to formally close the project, including final reports and transition planning.

Q57. A project suffered major issues leading to failure to meet scope, schedule, and cost goals. What should the project manager do during the closing process?

A. Omit problems from the final project report
B. Analyze successes and failures for lessons learned
C. Release team members as quickly as possible
D. Begin executing corrective actions immediately

Answer: B

Explanation: The PM should lead a comprehensive analysis of what went right and wrong during Closeout for input to lessons learned.

Q58. A project manager suspects a team member violated the company’s code of conduct. The PM wants to discuss this directly. Which ethical principle supports this approach?

A. Respect
B. Responsibility
C. Fairness
D. Honesty

Answer: B

Explanation: Responsibility requires holding ourselves and others accountable for upholding ethical conduct.

Q59. A project forecast shows the current timeline is unrealistic based on productivity data. However, the sponsor told the PM to keep reporting the unrealistic plan. What ethical standard does this violate if the PM complies?

A. Integrity
B. Respect for others
C. Responsibility
D. Professionalism

Answer: A

Explanation: Integrity means being truthful and upholding moral principles. Reporting false information violates this standard.

Q60. A project manager’s company won a competitive bid for a large government contract. During planning, the PM discovers family members hold senior roles in the government agency awarding the contract. What should the PM do?

A. Disqualify the company from the contract
B. Review contract terms to maximize fee
C. Report the conflict of interest
D. Document the relationship for later use

Answer: C

Explanation: The PM has a duty to disclose conflicts of interest to uphold ethics, accountability and public trust.

Q61. A key stakeholder requests adding more features during project execution. What should the project manager explain is the BEST way to add features?

A. Issue a change request for approval
B. Add activities to the critical path
C. Expand the project scope statement
D. Increase the budget contingency reserve

Answer: A

Explanation: Adding scope requires submitting a formal change request, getting approval through the change control process.

Q62. The productscope describes the features and functions of the product or service being created by the project. Which document defines the product scope?

A. Business case
B. Requirements documentation
C. Project scope statement
D. WBS dictionary

Answer: C

Explanation: The scope statement describes the product scope, which defines the end result being delivered by the project.

Q63. The project manager is reviewing the WBS with the project team. The WBS does not break down all the work involved. What should the PM do?

A. Decompose work packages further
B. Eliminate redundant work packages
C. Shorten the planning horizon
D. Fast track critical path activities

Answer: A

Explanation: The PM needs to continue decomposition until the WBS defines all the work in sufficient detail for planning.

Q64. A project manager is estimating activity durations. The PM estimates the testing phase will take 8-12 weeks. This is an example of which estimating approach?

A. Three-point estimate
B. Reserve analysis
C.Parametric estimate
D. Bottom-up estimate

Answer: A

Explanation: Stating an optimistic, pessimistic and most likely estimate is three-point estimating.

Q65. A project manager is creating a milestone trend chart. What information is conveyed in this chart?

A.Completion status of major deliverables
B.Cost performance over time
C.Actual vs. planned schedule performance
D. Progress along the critical path

Answer: A

Explanation: A milestone trend chart shows if major milestones are being completed as planned.

Q66. The project management plan requires a schedule contingency reserve of 15% on top of activity estimates. What is the purpose of this reserve?

A.To account for risks
B. To pay for crashing the schedule
C. To prevent scope creep
D. To compensate for activity dependencies

Answer: A

Explanation: Schedule contingency reserve provides time buffer to account for known-unknowns and unknown-unknowns that may delay activities.

Q67. A project has the following estimates:
Optimistic: $45,000
Most likely: $55,000
Pessimistic: $65,000

What is the standard deviation of this estimate?

A. $5,000
B. $8,333
C. $10,000
D. $15,000

Answer: B

Explanation: Standard deviation = (Pessimistic – Optimistic) / 6
= ($65,000 – $45,000) / 6
= $8,333

Q68. A project manager is monitoring project performance. Actual costs are $25,000 while earned value is $40,000. What is the cost variance?

A. -$5,000
B. -$15,000
C. +$15,000
D. +$25,000

Answer: B

Explanation: Cost variance = Earned value (EV) – Actual cost (AC)
Here, EV is $40,000 and AC is $25,000.
Therefore, cost variance is -$15,000.

Q69. A project has a budget at completion (BAC) of $350,000. Currently, it has spent $125,000 and completed 30% of work. What is the estimate to completion (ETC)?

A. $87,500
B. $175,000
C. $262,500
D. $350,000

Answer: C

Explanation: ETC = BAC – EV. EV = % complete x BAC = 30% x $350,000 = $105,000.
Therefore, ETC = $350,000 – $105,000 = $245,000.

Q70. A project team is designing a new building. The project manager wants to ensure the electrical wiring will meet safety codes and standards. What quality technique should be used?

A. Benchmarking
B. Design of experiments
C. Statistical sampling
D. Quality audits

Answer: A

Explanation: Benchmarking compares product designs to industry best practices and standards to ensure quality.

Q71. A project manager notices multiple delays being caused by insufficient capacity in a key testing process. What tool should the PM use to analyze this process?

A. Control charts
B. Pareto chart
C. Histograms
D. Flowchart

Answer: D

Explanation: A flowchart diagrams the steps of a process to identify bottlenecks causing delays or defects.

Q72. A project has missed quality targets for the last 2 weeks. The PM checks the process control limits and sees no points outside the control limits. What should the PM conclude?

A. The process is unstable
B. The process is in control
C. The process limits are invalid
D. Outputs do not meet requirements

Answer: B

Explanation: All data points within control limits indicates the process is statistically stable and predictable.

Q73. A project manager must assign human resources to activities in an upcoming project. The PM first documents the roles, responsibilities, required skills and reporting relationships. What is this document called?

A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Team charter
D. Role description document

Answer: D

Explanation: Role description documents define staffing requirements, competencies and reporting relationships for project team roles.

Q74. Due to high turnover, a project manager is unable to staff a project with internal personnel possessing required expertise. Which contract type is MOST suitable to obtain qualified resources?

A. T&M
B. FP
C. CR
D. PO

Answer: A

Explanation: A time and materials contract pays an hourly rate for labor and is useful for obtaining expertise not available internally.

Q75. A resource’s actual work on a project is 60 hours. Their original estimate was 40 hours. What is the resource’s schedule performance index (SPI)?

A. 0.67
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 3.0

Answer: B

Explanation: SPI = Actual Work / Original Estimate
Here, Actual Work is 60 hrs, Original Estimate is 40 hrs
Therefore, SPI = 60 / 40 = 1.5

Final Words

Passing the PMP certification exam is no easy task, with many project managers finding themselves unprepared for the rigorous questions they encounter.

Preparing using a variety of practice questions across all project management knowledge areas is crucial to reinforce understanding and identify gaps.

As shown through these 70+ sample pmp questions and answers, the exam will test your ability to recall definitions and formulas, interpret charts and diagrams, apply situational best practices, and solve calculations.

Utilizing practice exams that mimic the real test environment will help build the speed and accuracy needed on exam day.

With diligent preparation using these tips and the practice questions provided, you can master the material and be ready to pass the PMP exam on your first attempt.

Note: PMP certification is provided by PMI